That is absolutely incorrect. After I carefully just researched the story of Sodom and Gomorrah in Hebrew, the men of Sodom most certainly did want to have sex with the angels disguised as men. That’s why Lot offered up his daughters and told them they were virgins. If sex wasn’t on the agenda Lot wouldn’t have need of mentioning them being virgins. The men of Sodom rejected the women because they wanted to have homosexual sex.

markofreason said: The original letters of Paul didn’t not mention “men who have sex with men” or “effiminate” men or “homosexuals” in his letter to Corinthians. The words effeminate” and “homosexual” were recently added in the 19th Century. The original words used directly translate into English as “weak, soft, tender, sensitive, delicate” and “man, bed, couch”….these words could mean anything…why should anyone automatically take those words and flip them to what we now printed in the Bible?….

You wrong here too. The words in Greek are perfectly interpreted to condemn the sins of homosexuality and effeminate by perversion. 1Cor 6:9
According to my Strong’s the words are identified as malakoi (G3120) and arsenokoitai (G733,G2845)
Malakoi means effeminate also or did you purposefully exclude that word to fit your meaning of what you want the Bible to say?

Arsenokoitai (a Greek word) means a sodomite translated directly from Hebrew and a defiler (sexually) of themselves with mankind.
Koite (G2749) also mean conceive and cohabitation so it is addressing sexual behavior.

Anything else I can help you with let me know.

Exodus 15:3

Now, that will preach right there!

This is an ignorant coment to say the lest. Furthermore, he is doing what all apostates do – question the eternal Truths of scripture by getting others to think the texts are, as he clearly stated from the begining, subjective. I may remind Mr.Markofreason God held men responsible for thier sin long before “it was wriiten in stone” and God’s hand as always been involved in history, including the canonization. Man does not need a law against same sex sexual relationships to know it is wrong.

That cant be true, if it were, you would not be on this blog arguing what you believe to be true. If it is true, I do not expect to see any more irrelevant posts from you.

Its not casting doubt on God and his message to his people..its casting doubt on the various translation that exist today….i.e. NIV..for example..is so out of step from the original version until it’s scary that anyone really reads it or regards it as legimate.

Let’s be clear…I have never posted that the Bible doesn’t say homosexuality is a sin. I have simply stated the various views of different religious groups or organizations and me personally I see where they are coming from….

Nevertheless, all the Bibles I have read english does indicate that homosexuality is a sin. I just don’t know based upon my studies that everything written in these english Bibles line up word for word with the original Torah or any of the letters from Bible or the original Gospels…and I know I’m not alone in this….

Forgive me for being educated and a history buff….I see no problem in searching scripture….seeking the truth…and using the brains that God has given me to draw rational conclusions rather than just conlcusion based upon english translation of the scripture…
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Mark, every English translation available also makes it clear that adultery, bestiality, and incest are sins. (Interestingly, I’ve never heard a single “gay Christian” dispute that.)
So do you have an issue with those prohibitions too, or just the one against homosexuality?

And if you have no problem stating that adultery, bestiality and incest are sin (without quibbling regarding “translations”, the original writings, what’s in the torah,etc. )… then why focus all this microscopic attention on what the Bible says about homosexuality? Frankly, it makes one wonder if perhaps you’re just looking for a loophole to justify something the Bible clearly states is sin.